According to the first completed Canon of Scripture at the Council of Carthage in AD 419, the apocryphal books were adopted as biblical. http://www.ccel.org/ccel/schaff/npnf214.xv.iv.iv.xxv.html Why do not the protestant Churches consider them scriptural? Most contemporary Bibles exclude the apocryphal books but even the original King James Version included them. Are they any less inspired than the other books of the Bible?

jwmcmac's picture

Thanks to you

Thanks to you Panoramicromantic . . . for your search for the Truth with your whole Heart and Mind and strength of your Soul.

GOD Bless you and us all.


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