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One Flesh Union - Christ and the Church

De Maria's picture

What is the One Flesh Union concerning Christ and the Church?

I have posted a version of this question in the Biblical Studies because I believe it is a beautiful question to ponder. And another version in the interdenominational Discussions to see how we view this mystery as expressed in the Sacrament of Matrimony differently.

But I have really been waiting patiently and anxiously for quite a long time to post this particular question on this forum because in another discussion here, the Catholic view of the One Flesh Union between Christ and the Church was called blasphemous. Specifically this teaching from the Catechism.

795 Christ and his Church thus together make up the "whole Christ" (Christus totus). The Church is one with Christ. The saints are acutely aware of this unity:

Let us rejoice then and give thanks that we have become not only Christians, but Christ himself. Do you understand and grasp, brethren, God's grace toward us? Marvel and rejoice: we have become Christ. For if he is the head, we are the members; he and we together are the whole man. . . . The fullness of Christ then is the head and the members. But what does "head and members" mean? Christ and the Church.

Our redeemer has shown himself to be one person with the holy Church whom he has taken to himself.

Head and members form as it were one and the same mystical person.

A reply of St. Joan of Arc to her judges sums up the faith of the holy doctors and the good sense of the believer: "About Jesus Christ and the Church, I simply know they're just one thing, and we shouldn't complicate the matter."

Our understanding of the One Flesh Union between Christ and the Church is based upon this verse.
Ephesians 5:
30For we are members of his body, of his flesh, and of his bones.
31For this cause shall a man leave his father and mother, and shall be joined unto his wife, and they two shall be one flesh. 32This is a great mystery: but I speak concerning Christ and the church.

Now, it seems to me that our understanding lines up pretty well with Scripture.

And so, I posted this particular thread to see how your views contrast with the Catholic view of this greatest and most wonderful of mysteries.


De Maria

De Maria's picture

re: Noshic: Why did He make no mention there of one man-one wife


But that still doesn't answer why God didnot at any point make His people aware that polygamy was a sin in His sight. He gave so many rules through Moses- including rules for social / sexual behaviour. Why did He make no mention there of one man-one wife?

He did. But apparently the idea was as foreign to the Hebrew mind as was the idea that divorce and remarriage was adultery.

Bear with me. The Seventh Commandment says: Thou Shalt Not Commit Adultery.

Now, what is adultery?

To adulterate anything is to make it impure, to add foreign substances to it. We have seen that from the beginning, God made one woman for one man. Eve for Adam.

So, to adulterate the marriage bed is to add to it something which does not belong there. Another man or another woman.

Now, lets look at Jesus' explanation:
Matthew 19:9
And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.

Jesus was speaking to Jews who practiced polygamy. Or at least, who saw nothing wrong with polygamy.

So, if it is wrong to marry another after you have put the first away, how is it right to marry another IF YOU HAVEN'T PUT THE FIRST AWAY?

You see? It is simply wrong to marry another. Because it is adultery to do so and Father God forbid adultery in the Seventh Commandment.

Does that make sense?

De Maria