Comments on Tithing

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"and there is nothing in the New Testament that introduces any change or that sets aside the teaching of the Old Testament on this important subject." From the book by PINK...

I didn't read the book, although I did read through some of the descriptive see if it merited my reading. And the above quotation from the book indicated it does not merit my wasting time reading it. And below, are just a chosen few of the scriptural New Testament passages illustrating that very thing.

"God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets, Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son..." Hebrews 1:1-2a.

Is there a lack of clarity here? Doesn't this passage plainly state that God has produced for us, two separate and distinct 'speakings'? The first speaking of God was to the 'fathers' (of Israel), and it came through the agency of the prophets at various times and ways. That speaking we have codified and present for all see and read in the Old Testament.

Moses on Mount Sinai was the divinely chosen instrument and symbol of God's imprimatur as far as the Old Testament, the prophets and so forth are concerned.

In these last days though, God speaks to us by His Son, Jesus Christ. That speaking is presented to us in the New Testament. For this speaking, we hearken back to the Mosaic Mt. Sinai experience which it turns out, serves as a type of the Mount of Transfiguration and Jesus. Here on the Mount of Transfiguration, the law is represented by the manifestation of Moses, while the prophets were represented by Elijah manifested. At this place, on this mountain, and at this time, God made an incredible announcement (Peter, James and John having been chosen to be present so that, "in the mouth of two or three witnesses every word shall be established" would pertain)in that, "This is my beloved Son in whom I am well pleased...HEAR YE HIM."

It was not, "Hear ye Moses and the law", nor was it, "Hear ye Elijah and the prophets", but HEAR YE HIM, that is His Son, Jesus Christ.

And indeed, Jesus validated this fact with, "For all the prophets and the law prophesied until John". Matt 11:13

We see here then, when Moses (the law) and Elijah (the prophets) ceased to speak, that is, they spoke until John (for prophesying is speaking, "But he that prophesieth speaketh unto men..." 1 Cor. 14:3a), but now, now longer speak.

At the same time, we see when God's speaking to us through His Son began, that is, with John the Baptist. Remember, Jesus' and John's ministries were identical, in that both of them came forth preaching, "Repent (ye), for the Kingdom of Heaven is at hand" For John, Matthew 3:2...for Jesus, Matthew 4:17.

Is this important? Jesus would go on to say, in Luke 6:46, "And why call ye me, Lord, Lord, and do not the things which I say?" Indeed, why? Are we then to do as Moses says? Or as Jesus says? As Elijah says? Or as Jesus says"

He would tell us in the Great Commission, that, we are to, "Teach them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you:" Matt 28:20.

Jesus did not say, "Teach them to observe the things Moses said", nor did He say, "Teach them to observe the things Elijah said". No, He said, Teach them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you.

We'll skip the myriad of other NT passages telling us the law has been done away with, nailed to His cross, taken out of the way, slain (as the enmity,) ended ("For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth." Rom 10:4), ad infinitum, and go straight to the most important issue, that of keeping the law (whether of the Sabbath, or tithing, or the ten commandments) while at the same time attempting to live under grace...which thing Paul tells us would make us adulterers in the eyes of God.

"Know ye not, brethren, (for I speak to them that know the law,) how that the law hath dominion over a man as long as he liveth? For the woman which hath an husband is bound by the law to her husband so long as he liveth; but if the husband be dead, she is loosed from the law of her husband. So then if, while her husband liveth, she be married to another man, she shall be called an ADULTERESS: but if her husband be dead, she is free from that law; so that she is no adulteress, though she be married to another man. Wherefore, my brethren, ye also are become dead to the law by the body of Christ; that ye should be married to another, even to him who is raised from the dead, that we should bring forth fruit unto God. For when we were in the flesh, the motions of sins, which were by the law, did work in our members to bring forth fruit unto death. But now we are delivered from the law, that being dead wherein we were held; that we should serve in newness of spirit, and not in the oldness of the letter." Romans 7:1-6.

Note that we are dead to the law, that we might be married to another, that is Jesus, under grace. If then, we as Christians and married to Jesus, attempt to keep the law by paying tithes, we are found adulterers, being married to another, while our former husband lives.

And in this passage, it is clear that we are both dead to the law, and the law is dead to us...why would we then, stand before the dark, dank, corrupt and corrupting tomb of the law, and cry aloud, "LAW, COME FORTH"? as did Jesus to Lazarus?

Why would we continue paying the monthly payment on a mortgage that has already been paid in full? Don't we celebrate the final church building mortgage payment with a mortgage (called in legalize a "covenant") burning service, where we rejoice at having been delivered from that bondage?

I often have those who feel they should continue to pay a tithe. To them I offer this very serious advice, "If you feel you must pay a tithe, then do so totally, completely, unrestrainedly out of a motive of pure love to God...and do not allow it to be tainted with even the slightest tinge of doing so out of law, out of hopes of being justified thereby. Far better, would be to pay 9 percent, or 11 percent, than to risk being found an adulterer in the eyes of God". For no one can be justified by law, "But that no man is justified by the law in the sight of God, it is evident: for, The just shall live by faith." Gal 3:11.

While we're here, at Gal.3:12, let us deal with it, "And the law is not of faith:" The law may be many things, may be holy, just and good. It may be needed to get what you need, and feel that God cannot supply after any other fashion. It may pay your ministerial salary, give you discounts with airlines...but it is not, never has been, and never will be "...of faith".

And not only so, but even as we are assured "the law is not of faith", we know too, are also assured that, "...whatsoever is not of faith is sin." Romans 14:23b.

Pink is wrong...

Shotgun Bill